After 1832, about one in five men had the right to vote. Almost half of adult males, though, were still not eligible to vote when they accepted the call to fight and die for their country in the First World War. It wasn't until 1918 that the right to vote was extended, not only to women - which of course we hear a great deal about - but to all men. So how can this be - that this part of the story is almost completely unknown? How come when we celebrate the extension of the franchise to women, we don't talk about its extension to poor and working class men?
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